the virginal birth of Jesus

This is third/fourth hand information written years after an alleged event.

It's bound to be full of contradictions.

Metaphors can be more painful to accept than literalism, thus the preponderance of fundamentalists.

When read correctly, the scriptures say nothing about any supposed virginal birth.

The only way that a virginal birth would be possible would be for the woman to be artificially inseminated and the baby delivered by caesarean section, and the child born, would not be the child of God, but the biological child of the male sperm donor.

You mean when read according to your own perverse ideology which is as far from correct as one can get.

Jesus said Love thy Neighbour you spend all your time attacking people who are different or think themselves, the very opposite of what Christ preached.

And you believe that the Greek word 'Parthenos' means 'VIRGIN' do you Izzy?

No google translate does.

Jesus said that we must imitate him, who called some of the religious teachers of his day; 'Hypocrites, liars and sons of Satan the Father of all lies,' could I, who believe in Christ, do anything else to the lying religious teachers of today?

And you believe everything that is recorded in Google do you Izzy?

In Matthew you will find the genealogy of Joseph the son of Jacob from the tribe of Judah, who married the already pregnant Mary and had no sexual relations with her until after she had given birth to her firstborn son, the man Jesus.

This Joseph, is a descendant of Solomon the biological son of Bathsheba and King David, who had Uriah the Hittite husband of Bathsheba killed, and this Joseph who married the already pregnant Mary, is not genetically connected to Jesus, and although an adopted son inherits the rights of his adopted father, because his step father [Joseph ben Jacob] was a descendant, of the cursed line of Jehoiachim, he was seen by the advisors of Herod the Great, to have had no claim to the throne of David through that genetic line and was seen as no threat to Herod the Great.

It is written in Jeremiah 22: 30; concerning King Jehoiachim; Thus, saith the Lord. “Write ye this man childless, a man that shall not prosper in his days; for no man of his seed shall prosper, sitting upon the throne of David, and ruling any more in Judah.”

The word “Virgin” in reference to the mother of Jesus was not introduced until the Latin Bible ‘The Vulgate’ was translated to English, when the Latin word ‘VIRGO’ was translated to Virgin. For just like the early Greek language, the Latin did not have a specific term for ‘VIRGIN’, their word “Virgo” refers to any young man or woman of marriageable age, whether or not they had previous sexual relations with a man or woman.

In translating the Hebrew words of the prophet Isaiah, that an “Almah” an “unmarried female” would be with child and bear a son,” into Greek, which unlike the Hebrew language, does not have a specific term for ‘virgin,’ the authors of the Greek Septuagint and the later translators of the Gospel of Matthew, which was originally written in Hebrew, correctly used the Greek word ‘Parthenos,’ which carries a basic meaning of ‘girl,’ or unmarried youth, and denotes ‘virgin’ only by implication.

It was some months after the young “parthenos” (Unmarried 13 years old) Mary had told the Messenger of God] that up until that point in time she had never had any sexual relations with a man. Thereby Implying that the unmarried girl, “Almah=Parthenos” was still a virgin, before she met Joseph the young son of her father, Alexander Helios and biological father of Jesus.

‘Parthenos,’ was often used in reference to non-virgins who had never been married. Homer uses it in reference to unmarried girls who were no longer virgins, and Homer was the standard textbook for learning Greek all throughout antiquity, so any writer of Greek, including the translators of the Septuagint and Matthew, who translated Isaiah’s words, that (An “Almah’ an unmarried woman would be with child etc) while being well aware of this words versatile and indefinite meaning; were in no way implying that Mary was a virgin when they were forced to use the Greek term ‘Parthenos’ in translating Isiah 7: 14; 'Almah'.

For the Hebrew has a specific term for ‘virgin,’ “Bethulah” which word is used in every instance in the Old Testament where a woman who has never had sexual intercourse with a man is referred to, which is obviously not the case with the unmarried woman/Almah, who is mentioned in the prophecy of Isaiah 7:14.

In Pergamos, once called Pergamom, as one of the final stages in the quest for enlightenment, the initiated adept would participate in sex with the Temple Virgin/Virgo: "Parthenos and Virgo" did not mean possessing an intact hymen. A Virgo or Parthenos, was simply an unmarried woman, a woman who claimed ownership of herself.

Go to “A Dictionary of Biblical Tradition in English Literature,” by David Jeffery. There you will find written, “Many scholars consider the new Revised Standard Version of the King James translation, which is probably the most widely used version of the English bible today, and considered by most modern scholars to be to be the most accurate translation of the Old Testament. It follows the modern consensus in translating ‘Almah’ as ‘Young Woman’ in Isaiah 7: 14; as do the Hebrew scriptures.

In 1973, an ecumenical edition of RSV was approved by both Protestant and Catholic hierarchies, called the common bible. A New English Translation of the Bible, published in 1970 and approved by the council of churches in England, Scotland, Wales, the Irish council of churches, the London Society of Friends, and the Methodist and Presbyterian churches of England, all translate Isaiah 7: 14; “A young Woman is with child, and she will bear a son.”

Also, the Good News Bible, Roman Catholic Study Edition, with imprimatur by Archbishop John Whealon reads, Isaiah 7: 14; “A young woman who is pregnant will have a son, etc.”

As these religious bodies now, all accept that Isaiah was not referring to a virgin in that famous passage, they must now accept that the authors of the Septuagint and The Gospel of Matthew, who were forced to use the Greek term “Parthenos” in reference to Isaiah’s prophecy, were in no way implying that the pregnant Mary, was still a virgin.

Matthew 1: 22-23; should now read; ‘Now all this happened to make come true what the Lord had said through the prophet [Isaiah],’ “An unmarried woman/Almah who is pregnant will bear a son and he will be called immanuel: (“which means God is with us.”)

The point of the prophecy is not in the fact that an unmarried woman would bear a son, but that a child conceived out of wedlock (A Bastard) would be seen as the vessel in which the Lord would reveal himself to us, (“God is with us.”)

In 1st Chronicles 17: 13; Concerning Solomon, who was born of the adulterous union of David and Bathsbeba and the murder of her husband Uriah, God says of Solomon, “I shall be his Father and he shall be my Son” See both Samual 7: 14; and 1 Chronicles 28: 6. And God blesses Solomon, who was born of adultery and blood, with the rulership of one of the most glorious periods in Jewish history.

Continued from previous post.

The word for Tabernacle, mishkan, is a derivative of the same root and is used in the sense of dwelling-place in the Bible, e.g. Psalm 132:5 ("Before I find a place for God, mishkanot (dwelling-places) for the Strong One of Israel.") Accordingly, in classic Jewish thought, the Shekhinah refers to a dwelling or settling in a special sense, a dwelling or settling of divine presence, to the effect that, while in proximity to the Shekhinah, the connection to God is more readily perceivable. Some Christian theologians have connected the concept of Shekhinah to the Greek term "Parousia", "presence" "arrival," which is used in the New Testament in a similar way for "Divine Presence".

The Light of man came in the body of a human being, which "HE" had filled with his spirit and lived with us, and we saw his Sh'khinah, (Dwelling place) the Sh'khinah, or Dwelling place, which was the body of the man Jesus that the Father had prepared for his Son, who was to come down mentally and fill with his spirit, that body that his Father had prepared for him, the earthly dwelling of the Father's only Son, full of grace and truth.

Hebrew 10: 5; For when the anointed one was about to come into the world, he said, “Sacrifices and burnt offerings you did not want, but a body you have prepared for me, etc.”

That body was the man Jesus, of who we read, before he was given divine glory by the God of Abraham, Isaac, and Jacob, See Acts 3: 13; Hebrew 5: 7-10; “In his life on earth Jesus made his prayers and requests with loud cries and tears to God who could save him from death. Because he was humble and devoted, God heard him. But even though he was A son of God, (Not God’s Son, or THE son of God, but A son of God, check it out in the Appendix of Strong’s Concordance, or The King James, Amplified, or The Revised Standard translations. all Israelites are sons of God according to God’s word, see Psalms 82: 6; ‘You are gods,’ I said; ‘all of you are sons of the Most High.’) HE learned through suffering to be obedient, when he was made perfect (through his obedience, and could then be used as the host body through which our God, ‘The Son of Man’ could then revealed himself, through the life, the miracles and the words that would be seen and heard through his obedient servant and earthy image, who did, nor spoke one word on his own authority other than that which he was commanded by the Lord our saviour.)

Jesus, the one who God had prepared for his heavenly anointed one, then became the source through whom salvation could be gained from our Lord God and saviour, who rose Jesus from death and will raise all those, who are united to him also. 2nd Corinthians 4: 14; knowing that “HE” who raised the Lord Jesus will raise us also with Jesus and bring us with you into “HIS” presence.