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Calculus > Definite Integral

 
 
cin123
 
Reply Sun 5 Apr, 2020 08:06 pm
Demonstrate that integrate (cos^m(x) cos^n(x)) with upper limit is (pi/2), lower limit is 0 dx; = ((m/(m+n)) integrate (cos^m-1(x) cos(n-1)x with upper limit is (pi/2), lower limit is 0 dx. Hence, deduce that integrate (cos^m(x) cos(nx) dx = (pi/(2^(n+1)) with upper limit is (pi/2), lower limit is 0 .
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Type: Question • Score: 0 • Views: 331 • Replies: 2
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cin123
 
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Reply Sun 5 Apr, 2020 08:41 pm
@cin123,
how to do this type of question?
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cin123
 
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Reply Mon 6 Apr, 2020 08:19 pm
@cin123,
I am struggling with these in particular, if someone would be so kind to show how the answer is found that would be great, thanks!
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