Since, for and how long

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Hi everyone! I found in a textbook that when (since,for& how long) come with an action verb, then we use the present perfect continuous. When they come with a stative verb, we use the present perfect simple. But I found in another page of the text these sentences:
1. 1.She hasn't eaten there since June.
2.He hasn't spoken to me since Christmas.
Q: Why are action verbs" eat & speak" used with since to refer to the present perfect simple? I mean Shouldn't we use the present perfect continuous? !!!

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@Alex80,

"Eating there" and "speaking" in these instances are continuous actions, i.e. intermittent, often repeated, not continual ones, i.e. uniterrupted in time.

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@InfraBlue,

Default Re: Since, for and how long
Thank you so much for your explanation. So I can say:
1. She hasn't eaten/been eating there since July.
2.He hasn't spoken/ been speaking to me since Christmas.
It's about a permanent or temorary view. But a friend of mine told me that in sentence 2, 'hasn't spoken' means coincidental, but 'hasn't been speaking' means intentional. Is that correct?

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@Alex80,

"Hasn't spoken" can mean coincidence or intentionality. "Hasn't been speaking" is explicitly intentional.

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