Prepositional phrase

Forums:
Email this Topic • Print this Page

I am participating in an online English writing course.
While my instructor discussing the parallel structure he gives us two examples. 1. I go to the beach and to the movies 2. I go to the beach or the movies. He defines “to the beach” and “to the movies” as a prepositional phrase and “the beach” and the movies” as a noun, ignoring the” to” before it. By this way, he shows that both sentences are parallel as both sides of the conjunction have the same grammatical properties.

My question, why does he treat the second sentence as a parallel? Though, in my understanding, “ to the beach” and “the movies” are not being grammatically same.

Topic Stats
Top Replies
Link to this Topic

Type: Question • Score: 0 • Views: 385 • Replies: 13

No top replies

@Tofail,

Tof you're right if not exactly for the same reason as me. I wouldn't use 2) unless I was emphasizing one choice over the other with unlikelihood I might do both same day

1 Reply

@Tofail,

In the second sentence a second 'to' is omitted but implied. I go to the beach or [to] the movies.

1 Reply

@centrox,

My point is how the implied 'to' make it noun instead of a prepositional phrase?

0 Replies

@dalehileman,

My point is how the implied 'to' make it noun instead of a prepositional phrase?

1 Reply

@Tofail,

Expecting To Fail to comprehend all the implications; but I'm sure we'll hear from another expert before long. Yes, lousy punner

Quote:

√I go to the beach or the movies...implied 'to' make it noun instead of a prepositional phrase (?)

Cen, yes, but didja actually ans the q

...but the first q entering my 'brain': what's 'it'

Help, Egn, Iz, , Lay, Rog....,

1 Reply

I go to the beach (noun, a pebbly or sandy shore, especially by the sea between high- and low-water marks., or in US idiom, also a locality or area near such a place, e.g. an ocean side municipality)

I go to the movies (noun, a cinema, a building designed for the showing of motion pictures)

In what way are they not equivalent grammatically in the sense under discussion?

2 Replies

@centrox,

Quote:

are they not equivalent grammatically

Probly so, Cen, but I get the feeling that Ail is asking about the entire phrase. Here's another example at a2k where guys like you should instantly step in, rephrase the q

0 Replies

In US idiom, 'the beach' is a generic thing, not any particular beach (like it would be in British English - generically we go to the 'seaside'). Likewise 'the movies' is a generic amusement in US idiom, not referring to any particular cinema building or film.

0 Replies

@centrox,

I don't know why things go wrong.
My instructor said, “to the beach” and “to the movies” are prepositional phrase , so they are parallel. It is understood.
But problem arises when he said that, “to the beach” and ” the movies”(with implied ‘to’) are noun . Why they should be treated as noun instead of prepositional phrase? What is the difference between “to the beach” + ” the movies”( with implied ‘to’) and “to the beach” and “to the movies” ?

Prepositional phrase

Quick Links

My Account

able2know