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Fri 16 Oct, 2015 07:17 am
Hello everyone,
I'm a business analyst and I found this forum for discussion of economics topics. The Economist this week had an article about the UK current account deficit--stated as the 2nd biggest in absolute terms after the US. I remember before the 2008 crisis that Spain had the largest absolute deficit after the US, but now most of the Euro zone countries that had large deficits in the past are in surplus or much closer to balance. Is it fair to say that the deficit was 'transferred' to the UK, given its high levels of consumption and comparatively strong economic growth in the developed world? Thanks for your opinions, and I'm glad I found this forum.
Seb
@tenzan,
Welcome to our forum.
Seeing you're an economic expert, perhaps you can enlighten us with your opinion first?
@Ragman,
Not an expert myself but it seems like the southern European deficit (and potential to lead to imbalances) appears to have been 'transferred' to the UK. So I would be interested to hear ideas about the causes (beyond UK consumption holding up much better than weaker Eurozone members for example).
@tenzan,
Quote:I'm a business analyst
Not to be too nit-picky, but in my book that makes you an expert. I'm guessing that you're being modest.
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