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Tue 22 May, 2012 07:41 pm
Let's say a man's property is his wife's property,and a woman's property is her husband's property. In case of divorce each is entilted to half of the total property.Now let's say it was legal for a man to have two wives. If one wife was divorced, how does she not take any of the other wife's property and still take the property entilted to her?
@Ross7237,
If the Wife that is divorced is deceased? Am I correct?