germanic and semitic languages

https://www.quora.com/Semitic-Languages-How-different-are-Arabic-and-Hebrew

What type of connection are you talking about? There are plenty of loanwords of Arabic origin in English (so probably in German too), and the other way 'round.

If you're asking whether the Germanic languages descended in some way from the proto-semitic language, I don't think it's likely. There are reasons why they're part of the Indo-European family and not the Afro-Asiatic, ones a linguist could tell you better than me. A genealogical relationship requires that either one of the languages is descended from the other or that they're both descended from the same proto language.

There's bound to be words in all languages that sound similar enough to be considered cognates--a connection of sorts. But you're already reaching with the examples you used for Arabic. Qandil isn't the Arabic word for lamp. Some Arabic speakers use the English word now. I'm almost certain it's a loanword.

Thank you for your reply.

I really think that the European languages ( not just the Germanic languages ) are descended from the Semitic languages, I can proof it.

The word Plough is not a loanword, because in Dutch it is Ploeg, in German Pflug, in Swedish Plog, in Aramaic Plakh or Flah, in Arabic Flah.

Another example:
The word Earth, in German Erde, in Dutch Aarde, in Swedish Jord, in Arabic Ard, in Hebrew Artz, in Aramaic Ar'a.

This words are not loanwords. There is certainly a connection between all this languages.

The word Qandil is an Arabic word, which it is derived from the Aramaic word Qandila, and it means an oil-lamp.

We recently had a joker come in here to tell us that English must be a Romance language because of the loan words which came from French, Latin and Greek (ignoring that Greek is from a different language family). This argument is esentially the same, as though language were nothing more than a bag of words, which you can shake up, and pour out a new language. This type of argument ignores grammar, syntax, orthography, pronunciation and verb forms. It also ignores the discipline of linguistics, which has time and again been vindicated by archaeological and genetic research. This member apparently thinks that other people spoke no languages, or that their languages were completely replaced by Semitic peoples who ran around Eurasia teaching people how to speak read and write. Indo-European and Indo-Iranian languages derive from Avestan and Old Persian, which can not only be shown by the linguistic evidence, but by the archaeological and genetic research which shows how peoples speaking Indo-Iranian and Indo-European languages spread across Eurasia beginning more than 5000 years ago.

But I suspect that we've got another internet warrior here, who knows he right, and is not interested in any arcane knowledge which might contradict his thesis. Let the reader beware.

Thank you for your reply Setanta.

Obviously, you did not understand a word of what I was talking about. I don't blame you for your ignorance, because this topic needs someone who is familiar with the Germanic and the Semitic languages, and you are not.

I would really appreciated, if someone 'who has enough knowledge', to put his comments on this topic.

Yup.

I have one question.
How did the Hebrew speaking people get up to Scandinavia teaching the tribes Hebrew?

You must be a fool, too, saab. Did you not know that El-Al flies to Stockholm?

Thanks for the laugh.

There is an ironic hilarity in seeing such a comment from someone whose command of the English language is so lame.

If your English is so fantastic, try to use it in an useful way, instead of telling nonsense.
I'm glad that I can speak 5 languages, and I'm not ashamed of my poor English, because I'm not living in an English speaking country.

I hope your next comment will not be as stupid as the previous two.

Just checked a couple of words and your explanation is wrong.
They are not Hebrew, but Viking language.

How did the Viking speaking people get down to Israel teaching the tribes Viking? lol

If you're serious, give us some examples.

Not so difficult when you are a good sailor.

Phoenicians where also very good sailors.

https://phoeniciawb.wordpress.com/phoenician-trade/

So your languages have lent you the ability to insult people for no reason. How charming for you.

I've also checked of some words in Viking language, and you are right.
I found two words, Plough - Plogr and Call - Kalla.
But that is fantastic, since Viking language is a very old language and that indicates that this words are not loanwords , and that is exactly what I am saying. Is it a coincident?. I don't think so, since it s not just one word that looks similar but there are hundreds of words.
There has to be a real connection between the Semitic languages and the European languages.

Remind you that, without the Aramaic people, you would not be able to write right now, because they invented the alphabet and the writing system.

There is nothing called Viking language -

Oké, the old Norse language that Vikings were speaking.