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Is the subjective the inability to replicate?

 
 
Reply Wed 13 Jul, 2016 05:02 pm
Is something subjective if it's unable to exist elsewhere?
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Type: Question • Score: 2 • Views: 842 • Replies: 17
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33export
 
  1  
Reply Wed 13 Jul, 2016 07:03 pm
@Thomas33,
I hesitate to speculate - or ,also, articulate-but in the meantime I'll ruminate along with the others here at A2K.


wish I could delegate Ed for a better response.
Thomas33
 
  0  
Reply Wed 13 Jul, 2016 07:25 pm
@33export,
Thanks. I'm glad you took interest.
My own insight is that what people generally understand as the subjective is no different from objectivity, but of course I could be totally wrong.
0 Replies
 
fresco
 
  2  
Reply Thu 14 Jul, 2016 06:07 am
@Thomas33,
No, 'subjective' is merely the logical complement of 'objective'. Philosophically (ontologically) the status of that dichotomy ranges from 'problematic' to 'useless' *as far as views of 'existence' are concerned. This is because 'evidence' can lie in the eye of the beholder - a participator in a contextual social exchange, rendering 'objectivity' equivalent to 'consensus', and 'subjectivity' as lacking in consensus. Those who do not concur with this deconstruction of the dichotomy tend to be labelled 'naive realists' since they ignore the personal and social factors (especially language) in the structuring of what is called 'reality'.
It is true that 'objective' can be equated to 'replicability' in most of science, but there is an unstated subtext of 'consensus' (paradigm) about interpretation of observations.

*If this is what you are implying by 'no difference', you are on the right track.
Thomas33
 
  1  
Reply Thu 14 Jul, 2016 09:25 am
@fresco,
I'll accept that answer as the definitive answer - thank you.
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mark noble
 
  1  
Reply Sat 16 Jul, 2016 09:22 am
@Thomas33,
No.
Even objectivity becomes subjective, when identified.
Everything is subjective.
Thomas33
 
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Reply Mon 25 Jul, 2016 11:22 am
@mark noble,
Can you explain that a bit? I know that anything is replicated, making anything uniformity, but does this interfere with the meaning of anti?
mark noble
 
  1  
Reply Tue 26 Jul, 2016 09:43 am
@Thomas33,
Everything is born to your reality, perception and ability to process content.
Thus - Everything 'of you' is subjected to these factors.
Even objectivity is your subject.
'Anti' means against/opposing - And is causal by exact degree.
Thomas33
 
  1  
Reply Tue 26 Jul, 2016 12:16 pm
@mark noble,
The divide between content and me is the puzzle. I can create content, and content creates me. The rotation of creator is perhaps infinite, but if it is what's the power causing the rotation?
mark noble
 
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Reply Tue 26 Jul, 2016 12:38 pm
@Thomas33,
It Is.
Thomas33
 
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Reply Tue 26 Jul, 2016 12:44 pm
@mark noble,
Is context evidence of no freedom?
mark noble
 
  1  
Reply Wed 27 Jul, 2016 12:28 am
@Thomas33,
It is quantifiably limited - Thus restricts/imprisons the observer to the qualities therein.
'Freedom' is subjective (as is everything) So only you can join those particular dots.
One mans' Treasure is another mans' Trash.
Thomas33
 
  1  
Reply Wed 27 Jul, 2016 04:42 am
@mark noble,
Like one man's terrorist is another man's freedom fighter, and the point about relativity.

Relativity being the infinity of inversion, what is the meaning of it? Assume that inversion reflects the absence of beginning, and so X and Y are forced to always be identical, I can't actually imagine an alternate reality.
If reality were chronological (X, then Y), there'd be no possibility of knowledge!


Knowledge is dependent on no order.
mark noble
 
  2  
Reply Wed 27 Jul, 2016 06:13 am
@Thomas33,
Yes.
Relativity is infinite because infinity is relative.
Yes

rather - Knowledge is independent of order because order is knowledgeable of independence.
Thomas33
 
  1  
Reply Wed 27 Jul, 2016 08:44 am
@mark noble,
In other words, anything can be post. The top ten movie list can exist after any State of the Union address, and the query to a literary agent can exist after any wedding.

Do you see the problem there? The ability of no order is actually because of an innate sense of bias (the ability to demonstrate no order is itself because of a real structure, being subverted).

That's why I think truth is standard.
No order has never been able to have always been free of order, but the reverse isn't true.

mark noble
 
  1  
Reply Wed 27 Jul, 2016 08:54 am
@Thomas33,
Thomas, I have difficulty understanding your prior post - I was with you during the 'In other words' intro, but lost you immediately thereafter.

Thomas33
 
  1  
Reply Wed 27 Jul, 2016 11:30 am
@mark noble,
Reality is chronology. Day and night. Monday to Sunday. First then second semester.
Reality is also subjectivity (personal opinions, art). The subjective informs reality, and yet the chronology exists despite never being subjective (the chronology for Vladimir Putin is the same as for Kate Middleton).

So therein lies proof of a dual truth: objective and subjective.
My point is that despite being anti to one another, both subjective and objective experience needs, an obvious error.

The condition of subjective shouldn't exist in reverse.
mark noble
 
  1  
Reply Thu 28 Jul, 2016 07:49 am
@Thomas33,
Your 'reality' may be chronological, but mine isn't - Now - nvm.
Have a lovely everything.
0 Replies
 
 

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