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Does "the person of the enemy" refer to "the enemy himself"?
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oristarA
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Sat 16 Jan, 2016 10:27 am
Context:
...the favor of the person of the enemy.
(from Killing Another)
(No more context available)
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Type: Question • Score: 0 • Views: 363 • Replies: 5
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Tes yeux noirs
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Sat 16 Jan, 2016 10:34 am
Where did you see this?
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oristarA
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Sat 16 Jan, 2016 10:40 am
@Tes yeux noirs,
Tes yeux noirs wrote:
Where did you see this?
I did have given the book name: Killing Another (which from a theological perspective discuss the logic and legal base of killing other people: for example, God forbad the killing of Cain)
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Tes yeux noirs
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Sat 16 Jan, 2016 12:06 pm
@oristarA,
You gave a phrase "Killing Another" and gave no indication whether it was the title of a book, a poem, an essay, or a song. A fuller extract pleae.
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oristarA
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Sat 16 Jan, 2016 12:40 pm
@Tes yeux noirs,
The book is now in the library.
Can we see that "the person of the enemy" refers to "the enemy himself"? Is it possible that it will mean otherwise?
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Tes yeux noirs
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Sat 16 Jan, 2016 12:44 pm
Possibly the presence of the enemy.
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