@Squeakybro,
Surprised to see you dabbling so deep into the "Old Testament" my friend
The king James bible's translation here uses the word evil, but is taken from the Greek word RX, which is also rendered in other parts of the bible as calamity, disaster or distress. Keep in mind that these have fundamentally different connotations, "God creates Evil" would implicate that Evil is central to Gods purpose. Whereas "God creates calamity" implies that God punishes wrongdoers with calamity. The context of the discussion (using contrasting language by way of emphasis) also supports the latter, but I know context holds little weight with you.
What I would say, is consider what you know of Jesus, a reflection of his father, and think about which is more likely. We will differ on our definitions of Evil you and I, but I am confident we both hold a similar view of Jesus and his persona.
In your reluctance to compare the meanings of words via a concordance (or two), you are actually falling into the trap you seek to avoid, adopting the opinion of one translator without question. Am I seeing something that is not there? do you not see it also?
While I have respect for the KJV, I am highly reluctant to accept it as an infallible translation, one example is that it had the Israelites celebrating Easter (a Pagan celebration to the Goddess Ishtar) rather than the passover, not just mistranslating but completely ignoring the Original Greek word used "Pascha" which means passover. The most dangerous example would be the late inclusion of the Comma Johanneum i.e. 1 John 5:7, which I am sure you can respect is not only denominationally biased toward the trinitarian teachings but also highly spurious in it's origin
Discrepancies arise in all translations, which is why using a concordance is the most effective way of eliminating translation bias (the opinion of the translator or influence of the denomination responsible for the translation)
