1
   

Does 1) and 2) have the same meaning?

 
 
Reply Mon 30 Jul, 2012 11:15 pm

1) The scientists used the method in numerous studies until 2000.
2) The scientists used the method in numerous studies by 2000.
  • Topic Stats
  • Top Replies
  • Link to this Topic
Type: Question • Score: 1 • Views: 205 • Replies: 3
No top replies

 
View best answer, chosen by oristarA
MontereyJack
  Selected Answer
 
  2  
Reply Mon 30 Jul, 2012 11:34 pm
No. The implication in 1 is that things changed after 2000, how they changed is not specified. 2 is awkward but they still could be using it after 2000.
0 Replies
 
MontereyJack
 
  0  
Reply Mon 30 Jul, 2012 11:39 pm
and it's "DO 1 and 2 have the same meaning"
0 Replies
 
oristarA
 
  1  
Reply Tue 31 Jul, 2012 03:00 am
Thank you Jack.
0 Replies
 
 

Related Topics

Drs. = female doctor? - Question by oristarA
Let pupils abandon spelling rules, says academic - Discussion by Robert Gentel
The definition of the "index" here - Question by oristarA
PAY ATTENTION? - Discussion by William
reduce the number of items damaged - Question by tintin-and-calculus
The prospect of funding pensions - Question by tintin
most poorly represented period - Question by tintin
meaning of second paragraph - Question by tanguatlay
what's the meaning of the sentence? - Question by grace-g
Translate English into Latin - Discussion by merthorn
 
  1. Forums
  2. » Does 1) and 2) have the same meaning?
Copyright © 2013 MadLab, LLC :: Terms of Service :: Privacy Policy :: Page generated in 0.09 seconds on 05/25/2013 at 04:27:13