Can we have knowledge or belief which is independent of culture?

My arguement assumes aprioristic epistomology being strictly formal, the "cultural norms" must all be consistent in this case.

As an example, you may culturally argue that if you leave two pencils in box, you wil recieve two pencils, however, experience of dogs being 'friendly' may culturally vary.

You wrote, That doesn't have anything to do with this thread.

Yes, that is the reason I quoted "cultural norms", it is simply for clarification.

JLNobody appears to believe that apriori knowledge is cultural.

I would argue that it is prior to experience (empiricalism).

You wrote,

Provide proof?

I meant to say that cultural understandings APPEAR to their bearer to be a priori, not that they are.
By "strictly formal" do you mean that "cultural norms" appear to be the same for their users? We don't know, of course, if cultural actors mean exactly the same thing by the same words or symbols. But when you say they are the same "formally" I agree. Not all pennies are identical in fact but they are identical formally. Is that what you mean?

Can you prove 'definition', or '='?

They are tautologous, the basis of 'prove'.

I argue 'apriori', by definition.

Yes.

To clarify, perhaps this example is more coherent:

Is a bachelor married?

The answer is consistent in culture, being that it is aprioristic, however this assuming that the cognitive properties are consistent, the word itself is open to interpretation.

Again, is a bachelor married?

Culturally, it may be interpreted as 'pejorative'.

As an example, a necessary truth is not repeated in the same sentence, I need not request, are 'you, you'?

This is infinite regress.

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Also, which unknown you chose to guess about. And that's very dependent on culture.