Thu 16 Jun, 2011 02:12 pm
Which culture coined the term "White" to refer to people of fair, sun-sensitive, complexion who hale from North-West-Atlantic-Europe? Was it the Americans? Was it the British? Or does White Supremacism have roots elsewhere? Is White-Supremacism still a threat to the peace of the civilized world?
in the four-volume Essai sur l’inégalité des races humaines
the French writer and diplomatist Joseph-Arthur, wrote about the superiority of the white race, maintaining that 'Aryans' (Germanic peoples) represented the highest level of human development.
That has been the (or at least one of the) scientific
writings about it.
From the 19th to the mid-20th century the doctrine of white supremacy was largely taken for granted by political leaders and social scientists in Europe as well as in the United States.
But it was the Anglo-Americans who first used the term "White" as a racial term. Europeans prefered the term "Aryan" which referes to the Indo-Aryan cultures who's roots were the Caucasus and Russian Steppe. Am I right? So here sems to be a slight difference in the use of language and to which group is being refered to as "superior".
I don't know if that's true or not. I believe White Man's Burden was originally coined by Kipling.
It began in Europe in the 17th century according to references given in wikipedia.