U did not read my post to u??
The grammarians attested that there
had been no change in the rules since 1789.
Right.. and there has been no change in the rules of gun ownership since then either.
Well, yes and no, parados, in that the 2nd Amendment merely
recognized and protected a commonly known
-existing right (as per US v. CRUIKSHANK
and D.C. v. HELLER
but as of December 15, 1791 that pre
was accorded the additional protection
and preservation of the Supreme Law of the Land
and there has been no change since then;
altho unConstitutional usurpations of power
have cheated the citizens out of the exercise
thereof in some states, since then.
Parados, let's not lose sight of the fact
that during the 1700s, there were NO police
anywhere in the USA, nor in England,
until well into the next century. Therefore,
personal failure to be adequately well armed
was like near suicidal irresponsibility,
just throwing caution to the winds.
This had been illegal
, in some of the
American Colonies, the same way that it
is now illegal to fail to lock your seatbelt.