Everyone tells/has told

First, yes, either is fine.

I think, Ms Tan, this is a case where the meanings of two different language structures come close enough to each other that the semantic meaning is essentially the same. These things really don't occur to native speakers save for those who study language.

Of course, the present simple usually, [as in this case], tells of the habitual, the routine, the commonplace, things that happen on a scale from never to always. It's time frame is the past, present and the future.

This use of the present perfect, 'has told' is an example of the PP of experience and it generally describes a time that is "up to now" although here, in this example, its generality seems to include a time frame similar to the present simple.

Many thannks, JTT, for your clear detailed explanation.