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Debemus

 
 
Reply Wed 28 Jan, 2009 03:25 pm
there is suppose to be a macron on the second (e)
What is this - a verb - a noun ??
And what does it mean??
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Type: Question • Score: 1 • Views: 782 • Replies: 11

 
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Reply Wed 28 Jan, 2009 03:27 pm
Looks like a first person plural Latin verb--I think it means "We have to", but my Latin was long ago.
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Reply Wed 28 Jan, 2009 03:31 pm
there's an online Latin dictionary, and it says "debeo" is "to owe, to be morally bound to, to be bound by" ("debeo" is first person singular, I think)
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View Profile Francis
 
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Reply Wed 28 Jan, 2009 03:36 pm
Present tense (praesens) of latin verb debere.

Debemus = we ought (also we must or we owe)
View Profile Setanta
 
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Reply Wed 28 Jan, 2009 03:42 pm
This member is also asking if a macron must appear over the second "e." This is a question which i cannot answer, and i've never known Latin to use diacritical marks, but perhaps George can answer this if he arrives. A marcon is what will be familiar to older Americans as a "long sign" placed over a vowel in phonetics text to indicate that the "long" pronunciation must be used.
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Reply Wed 28 Jan, 2009 03:43 pm
debere, debeo, debui, debitum

Praesens: debeo, debes, debte, debemus, debetis, debent


I'd thought that the mentioning of "marcon" was just thought to be helpful for the pronunciation... today. (Though I've seen some medieval sources with marcons, too.)
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View Profile Setanta
 
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Reply Wed 28 Jan, 2009 03:47 pm
That's what i would have thought, too, Walter--but i'm no Latin scholar, so i didn't want to say that.
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Reply Wed 28 Jan, 2009 03:52 pm
I think Latin, at least at some periods and in some versions did in fact use the macron. As English speakers we habitually shorten unstressed vowels or turn them into schwas ("uh" sound), so we'd pronounce the first syllable of "debemus" like the first syllable of "debutante", whereas in languages like Spanish, which is a pretty direct descendant of Latin, they'd probably pronounce it like "day-bay-moose" (and we'd probably pronounce the last syllable of it as if it were the word "muss" )--(you can always tell an English speaker, no matter what other language it is he's messing up).
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Reply Wed 28 Jan, 2009 03:56 pm
You wont find a macron in any (original) sources from Roman times.
Quote:
Though many ancient Roman and Greek textbooks employ the macron, it is never actually used during the ancient Roman and Greek times or text. Rather, the macron is to make reading a word easier.
Wikipedia

For instance,, "cohirere" was sometimes written either with a macron or an accent .... centuries later, only:

http://www.vetoniana.de/images/inschrift2.jpg
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View Profile George
 
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Reply Thu 29 Jan, 2009 08:44 am
O di immortales!
A Latin discussion on A2K!

Quote:
there is suppose to be a macron on the second (e)

I think mendesc008 is telling us that he or she would have put a macron there.

Quote:
What is this - a verb - a noun ??

I agree that it is the first person plural present indicative of "debeo".

Quote:
And what does it mean??

Depends on the context.
The original meaning was "owe" or "be under obligation".
It came to mean "ought", accompanied by the infinitive of whatever it is one
ought to do. "Ire debemus" means "We ought to go."


(I never could get the hang of macrons.)
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View Profile Setanta
 
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Reply Thu 29 Jan, 2009 09:25 am
However, macaroons are very tasty!
View Profile Francis
 
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Reply Thu 29 Jan, 2009 09:31 am
Macarons too!
http://www.krissweblog.com/images/macaronsPierreHerme.jpg
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